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I watched them, and didn't see anything stronger than the use of "hwn.t". The only other corroborating detail seems to be that only virgins could portray Isis,
No, that is not the only other corroboration. It is also corroborated by the fact that her child is conceived and delivered by her Ba, not body, and that she has the same epithet of "Immaculate lady", later given to the virgin Mary for the very reason that she is a virgin.(And just for clarification Mary was given the epithet of 'immaculate virgin' before the doctrine of her immaculate conception developed, as we see it in the writings of Hippolytus & Tertullian.)
And other corroborations included the above citation from Sais that Tat refers to, i.e., her syncretism with Athena in Sais by the first century, Athena being one of the patron goddesses of virginity and yet also mother to Ericthonius(as per several variants). The people of Sais could see that Isis was virgin mother not unlike Athena.
Moreover, whether you intended anything significant by this or not, I notice you chose the word "could" when you said "could portray". No, it's not just that virgins "could" portray, the text states it as a requirement. Only a virgin could do it. But more on that later.
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which isn't very compelling
Only to the obstinate.
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(the fact that, generally, only women have played Peter Pan in stage productions doesn't mean that J.M. Barrie intended to say Peter Pan was a female).
You're grasping at straws here. As concerns this topic, these are two disparate things, that being theater and religious ritual, and the logic of your attempted analogy opens Pandora's box upon itself, which I will clarify in a moment.
The Songs of Isis and Nephthys is not a theatrical play, it is a religious ceremony, this was sacred stuff, and yes indeed the requirements for the participants are significant and obviously are correlatetions to the deities they are portraying, for instance, one of the many requirements in this list besides just virginity, is writing the name Isis on the arm of the girl portraying Isis. It would be ludicrous to try and argue that this requirement has no correlating feature to Isis herself, but just some whimsical arbitrary thing. "The fact that Isis is the name of the goddess she is portraying is just a coincidence, she is not required to be named Isis just because Isis is named Isis as well." No, that would not be logical, clearly such requirements were put in place because these are features of Isis, and there is no reason to make an exception for the requirement of virginity as you are trying and failing to do here, it's just more special pleading, true to form for you so far. To argue that the requirement that the girl must be a virgin is unrelated to Isis herself is like arguing that the requirement that the girl be named Isis during the performance is unrelated to Isis herself.
More over, as I said, this document describes religious rituals and these requirements were exactly that, required. While I have not studied into the casting history of Peter Pan performances, your usage of the word "generally" combined with what few performances of Peter Pan I have seen, indicates to me that being a woman was not an obligation for playing the part, but merely of no consequence. Plus I deduce that in the instances when a woman was selected, this was due to the males who auditioned either being too old and/or masculine to make a believable boy, or too young and/or inexperienced to act with the skill to pull off the performance.
But that much aside, as I said, it would appear the fact they were women was of no consequence, not an obligation, and thus this would not properly correspond as an analogy to the Songs papyrus, since being a virgin was of consequence, it was an obligation.
The things not stated would appear to be of no consequence and thus I would agree would not need to be understood as a feature of isis herself. For instance, there is no requirement for hair color, so if a red head was chosen, it would be fair to conclude that this does not necessarily mean that Isis should be viewed as a red head. It's a detail that is of no consequence, and hence, not touched upon in the list of requirements.
And what I meant by your attempted analogy here unleashing Pandora's box upon itself is made evident when applied to any other instance of casting requirements, be it religious or theatrical, and should go without saying. You try to cite a minority exception of when the casting selection is counter intuitive to one of the attributes of the character being portrayed, and try to apply it contra parsimony, disregarding the overwhelming majority of instances when the selected cast has or is given attributes that DO correspond to the characters being portrayed, for that very reason, because their character is meant to have them. Kirstin Dunst and Kate Bosworth were chosen to portray their comic book damsels because their characters are meant to be, and have been, viewed as desireable young women. And they were both required to dye their hair because their characters were meant to be viewed as having that hair color. Fans of the classic Spider-Man comics know full well Mary Jane had red hair, and so when we see Dunst having red hair as well, we do not chalk up to being arbitrary and of no consequence as your analogy would have it. We know the reason why she died her hair red, because that IS the hair color of the character. We know she was also chosen because she IS a girl, just like her character, etc., etc. The features not required for casting are clearly of no consequence, and so we are justified in concluding that Louis Lane is not necessarily meant to be viewed as having heterochromia.
But to be more relevant of the Songs, which are religious rituals, nuns and monks with their vows of chastity comes to mind. They are to live in celibacy because they are emulating the deity they are trying to be like and are worshipping- Christ. They ARE being celibate because Christ was celibate(as per their doctrine, the NT is silent on the matter). And their celibacy is something they expected to take seriously. It is a requirement. it is not arbitrary. Their deity IS to be understood as having this same particular feature.
And likewise with the requirements for the chosen girls for the Songs papyrus. She is required to female because Isis is female, she is required to be given the name Isis because Isis is named Isis. She is required to be "pure of body" and a "virgin" because Isis is a virgin with a pure body. To conjecture a dichotomy between that one item on the list and the rest of the requirements in the list is just more special pleading.
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There is the sexless conception in some versions, of course, but non-virgins can have sexless conceptions just as easily as virgins can. If I missed something (which is possible), could you point out what it was?
Oh with that we are agreed, this was never disputed. Pindar's version of the birth of Athena perhaps being a good example, as Zeus was no sexual kind of virgin, at least not in any text I've come across.
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So are you under the impression that, in the Gospel accounts, she did?
I was unambiguously clear on that when I wrote "Now, I for one do not believe the author intended this, since that much is obvious, just as it is obvious that the author[s] of the aforementioned Abydos inscriptions intended Isis to be viewed as a virgin, since she explicitly stated as much plus it is corroborative with the other facts about her and the conception of Horus as previously stated."
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I can't imagine that's the case, since your argument relies on Jesus having been born of a virgin. Can we agree that, per the Gospels, Jesus was born of a virgin, or are you really going to shoot your own argument in the foot?
My argument has never relied upon nor been that Jesus was born of a virgin, MY argument has been in regards to Horus & Isis here.
My exposure of your special pleading, however, has indeed taken for granted the admitted fact that YOU believe Jesus was born of a virgin, which you do.
I follow the same succinct logic in regards to Isis & Horus as I do with Mary and Jesus. You, however, do not, you make repeated arguments against Isis which Mary herself falls victim to when applied to her.
I have never once argued that Jehovah ACTUALLY had sex with Mary. But the kettle logic in you attempted arguments leaves open that possibility when that pendulum swings back the other way, because if you're looking for an explicit statement similar to that in Matthew 1:25, both Osiris and Jehovah lack that kind of a statement in their favor, and both are having babies, so to try and make Jehovah exempt from this very criteria you tried to put forward would expose you as holding a double standard.
Doesn't pose a problem for me however, or "shoot its foot", as I never required a statement similar to Matthew 1:25 in regards to Osiris, since I lack your level obstinacy and exceed your level of parsimony, and thus I understand that while such a statement would be valuable, it is not necessary. Just as it isn't for Jehovah.
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So because she didn't have sex at that moment, she could only be a virgin?
No, it's because she has never been depicted as having sex at ANY moment(until we come down to Plutarch). This statement of yours right here is being inductive as opposed to deductive. Isis is only ever depicted as having sex at one event- this one. Ever. At all. Period. And even that, as shown and as you have conceded, is not universal. So it being the case the conception of Horus(or Horuses for Plutarch) is the only instance in Isis's mythology in which she is ever depicted as having sex, then when a version if this conception lacks that element, we are left completely without any evidence of sex, period. Hence the justification for her being described as a virgin at Sais, Abydos, in the Songs of Isis & Nephthys, and being referred as Immaculate Lady. And hence the justification for several scholars throughout the years having referred to her as a virgin.
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Even though she was married to Osiris? Now, I realize that fictional characters can't have actual sex, but if there's a story about a married couple, it's wise to assume that the woman isn't a virgin, even if are no salacious encounters in the text. Unless there is something in the story itself indicating she is a virgin.
Stick a pin in this, I'll come back to it later on.
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Not really. Your argument relies on "hwn.t" meaning "virgin", and you seem to agree that this definition pretty much depends on there being no significant evidence to the contrary. I see no indication that any of the author(s) of the Abydos inscriptions intended to imply that Isis was a virgin when she gave birth to Horus.
Not really. My argument has relied and several pieces of evidence corrborating with each other, one of which is hwn.t. And while we're on hwn.t, I shall address it all together at once here-
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And again, you're relying on "hwn.t" meaning "virgin" here. You point out in your video that "a,b and p" are used to describe a married woman at one point, and that in her case, it probably doesn't mean "virgin". Same goes for Isis.
...
Yet you also agree that it doesn't automatically mean "virgin", if there is something in the story indicating that the woman isn't one, such as her being married or having a child (unless, of course, the story gives other reason to suppose that wife or mommy is a virgin, as Mary's does).
I have never agreed that the definition of hwn.t depends on there being no significant evidence to the contrary, although it's true that there is none, and that is corroborative, but no, it depends on that fact that 'virgin' is what it MEANS, and is the way it is translated.
What I have clarified is that all the other English words used to translate hwn.t are synonyms for virgin, I have never implied that hwn.t can ever mean anything other than virgin. For instance, you brought up it being translated as maiden, and I clarified to you the fact that maiden likewise means virgin. You write things like "you also agree that it doesn't automatically mean virgin" when I have agreed to no such thing, and have not even alluded to it. I have only ever expounded upon the fact that all the variety of English words used to translate hwn.t all mean the same thing, that's exactly WHY the scholars can choose these words. They aren't trying to change the meaning of the text. You have apparently confused yourself about what I said and have gotten your wires crossed. I pointed out how the aforementioned variety of English synonyms used to translate hwn.t have likewise been used to translate almah, bethulah, and parthenos, and thus the usage of these English words besides virgin does not take anything away from the meaning of hwn.t, otherwise those making a fuss over the use "maiden", etc., are holding a double standard.
But going beyond that, I also went on to demonstrate how besides just having the same corresponding English words as hwn.t, the biblical words of almah, bethulah, and parthenos likewise have a definition that is not exclusive to sexual virginity, and sometimes even inclusive of just the opposite. However, I never once thourghout all of my posts or videos, ever said this to be the case with hwn.t as well. I only ever pointed out the non-exclusive definitions of the three biblical words, I never once said or alluded to hwn.t likewise having a non-exclusive definition like parthenos or bethulah does. And that because the point I was trying to demonstrate is that these words are actually weaker in conveying sexual purity than hwn.t does. And again, don't lose track here, don't get me wrong, these three words do include virginity in their definition, but are not exclusive to it, and their meaning needs to be determined at each usage by its context. Hwn.t however, I have only ever seen translated as virgin or some synonym thereof(maiden, damsel, lass). And the very fact that Isis is married further supports it's definition as virgin, and to clarify what I mean, you pointed out that hwn.t is also translated as maiden, and yet if Isis is married, then clearly for her, maiden does not indicate her marital status, it does not and can not mean she is an
"unmarried girl or woman" since she IS married. She is also neither a
guillatine or horse that has never won a race. Although the principle behind that horse definition is relevant. But no, she is none of these things. By process of elimination, all that's left is the definition of virginity, of
"coming before all others", "never having had sexual relations", which by parsimony, is the most appropriate in light of everything else covered- the fact that Botterweck lets us know she calls herself a virgin at Abydos, that the Songs of Isis & Nepthys let us know she's meant to be viewed as a virgin, that she it is always her Ba and never body that is depicted as getting pregnant by Osiris, and that she is conflated with the Greco-Roman patron goddess of virginity and virgin mother herself- Athena, and, therefore, the fact that she is said to have claimed that no man has ever removed her robe/lifted her veil, and the fact that she is called the Immaculate Lady, an epithet later given to the virgin Mary, and the fact, like Mary(as per the immaculate conception doctrine), Isis's own mother was likewise a virgin mother to at least Osiris, etc.
She is married, so clearly "maiden" is indicative of her sexual status, not her marital status, all the more cemented by the fact that the same passage HAS been translated as virgin. In fact, Botterweck's is the ONLY English translation of the Abydos plate I've ever come across. There is no one who has translated that as maiden, not that it would matter since they mean the same thing, but with as much as you have tried to make fuss over the fact that it can be translated as maiden, it is amusing seeing as how you have done so without any English translation to support you. The only other guys I've so far come across that have translated hwn.t specifically as maiden are Faulkner and Budge(and, well, Mercer once in a commentary on P.T), and they only do so in other passages, such as in the Pyramid Texts(which doesn't even apply to Isis, but rather, to Nut in that instance), and not for the Abydos passages in the Temple of Seti, therefore, for you to bring up the usage of maiden as a translation of hwn.t, you find yourself guilty of the very charge you go on to levy at me further down your post, and that being, you are using "a completely different story" from the one at Abydos to try and bolster one translation above another. But the hyposcrisy in that aside, it was all in vain, since maiden and virgin are interchangable, especially in this context, and especially since maiden cannot mean bachelorette in this instance since she is already married, as you are all too quick to point out and then make exceptions for Mary.
And, somewhere throughout this discourse, in your own mind you did something that I myself never did, which is, you have taken those same aforementioned non-exclusive properties that the definitions of almah, bethulah, & parthenos have, and tried to carry it over to hwn.t.
The ONLY scholarly translation of the text of plate 9 at Abydos has it rendered as virgin.
And EVERY scholary translation of hwn.t I've ever come across has rendered it as either virgin or some synonym thereof. Here's at least four that state as much(Becking plus the three he is citing):
"In Egypt the epithets 'dd.t, rnn.t, and hwn.t - girl, young woman, virgin' are applied to many goddesses, e.g. Hathor and Isis, who had not yet had sexual intercourse." Dictionary of Deities and Demons in the Bible This coming from scholars, who were no doubt well aware that Isis was married and had a child, yet such details did not sway them in their rendering of hwn.t as virgin or in their assesement that she had not yet had sex, nor did it sway Botterweck.
And indeed, there are the other things besides hwn.t indicating Isis is a virgin, which you have repeatedly attempted to treat as an elephant in the living room.
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In the Abydos inscription itself, the ONLY indication of Isis being a virgin is the use of the word "hwn.t".
Agreed, the only thing on plate 9, all by itself when separated from everything else associated with Isis, that is indicative of Isis being a virgin is the use of the word virgin. Very true.
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Showing that there are sexless conceptions in other stories (though sexless conception =/= virgin birth), or that only virgins could play Isis at other situations (which doesn't mean Isis herself was one)
Already addressed above. It sure does tell us Isis was one, just as the requirement that the girl be called Isis is clearly because Isis was called Isis, and so on, with the whole list.
I also notice again, whether you did it intentionally or not, you've chosen words that downplay the religious nature of the text and try to paint it as a theatrical type of thing- "
play Isis". Only about as much as the pharoahs "played" Horus and Osiris and Ra. And on that point, the Pyramid Texts, before the Coffin Texts made these rituals available to the common man, the Pyramid Texts require the rituals, the rituals that merge him with Osiris, be performed on the king of egypt, but by the flawed logic of your excuse, this is no indication that Osiris was understood as having been the king of Egypt and is not corroborative with all of the other texts that state that he was.
In the rituals of the Pyramid Texts, as Allen thoroughly explains in his introduction, were to be performed on the deceased king to turn him into Osiris, while his successor then becomes the new Horus, the living king reigning on earth in his stead, and his widowed queen, if she's still alive, is to perform the role of Isis. The Pyramid Texts give no narrative of the story of Osiris, Isis, & Horus, but it doesn't need to, as their story can be clearly seen in the attributes described of these pharoahs and their sons & wives. But by your failed logic, just because the texts say Pepi is the father of Horus, the husband and brother of Isis, the son of Nut and Geb, that Pepi was killed by Set, that Pepi's son Horus has defeated Seth and avenged his father Pepi and now raises Pepi from the dead so that Pepi can ascend into heaven and sit on Ra's throne reigning in Ra's stead- by the ridiculous kettle logic of your attempted excuse, just because these things are true of Pepi doesn't mean this was true of Osiris, and we cannot corroborate this with other Osirian texts since those would be, as you put it, using "facts from a completely different story" to try and bolster the usage of the Pyramid Texts as a source for attributes of Osiris.
I'd love to see the look on Allen's or Faulkner's face if you were to try and pull that on them, and yet that's what your logic here has consisted of.
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doesn't tell us anything about what the author(s) of the Abydos inscription was intending to relay in his version of the story.
Sure does, for reasons already evident in what I've previously written. More special pleading here your part, you are making an exception here for just this one attribute of Isis that happens to parallel the mother of your messiah, while not using this same objection to all of the other attributes of Isis. To try and argue that other texts about Isis can't be corroborated with the plate at Abydos in order to deduce what the authors intended to convey about Isis just opens Pandora's box on itself, because it fails when applied to any of her other attributes found in other texts. I mean, by that logic, we cannot deduce that the authors of plate at Abydos intended for Isis to be viewed as the wife of Osiris, the sister of Nephthys, the daughter of Geb, etc. Hell, at least her status as the Great Virgin is explicitly stated there, unlike some of the aforementioned attributes. Yet it would be against parsimony to try and argue that "just because many other texts state or allude to Isis being the wife of Osiris doesn't mean this Isis here in Abydos is to be understood that way".
This is how scholars piece together the puzzle, by corroborating facts from different sources, since there is no complete single narrative of the mythologies of Isis and Osiris in any Egyptian source. The only such narrative comes to us from Plutarch.
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You're trying to combine what one author said with something another author said in order to create a new narrative
Nah, not a new narrative, and not anything I myself have done, as I have given scholarly references. But combining what one author said with something another author said to create a new narrative is exactly what the bible does. Even just the New Testament alone, Mark and John are supplemented by Matthew and Luke in regards to their omission of the virgin motherhood of Mary, and vice-versa and so on in regards to material that one has that another does not. So true to form you have continued with the special pleading here.
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when there's no indication that either author, or anyone from ancient times, considered Isis to be a virgin when she gave birth to Horus.
Sure is, everything covered so far.
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A woman who is married is almost certainly not a virgin. Unless there some sort of indication within the story itself (as there is with Mary) that she is abstinent while married. If you had "other known facts" indicating that the author(s) of the Abydos inscription intended for Isis to be a virgin, then, yes, this would bolster your argument that "hwn.t" means virgin in this story. But you're trying to bolster it with "facts" from a completely different story, one which doesn't suggest that Isis was a virgin mommy, either.
Already dealt with above. However, in regards to this part-
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A woman who is married is almost certainly not a virgin
I now pull out that pin I placed a while back, as I shall address it along with this-
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Even though she was married to Osiris? Now, I realize that fictional characters can't have actual sex, but if there's a story about a married couple, it's wise to assume that the woman isn't a virgin, even if are no salacious encounters in the text. Unless there is something in the story itself indicating she is a virgin.
Well, there is something else indicative in the story for it, already referenced time and again above.
But one has to wonder if you expect Christ to have sex with all the christians, you know, after the marriage supper of the lamb, when he marries his bride, the church. No doubt the cries of "that's just in a spiritual sense" will come, but nonetheless, you have said what you said, and so even if it is just a spiritual marriage, based on what you've said, we can expect there to also be a spiritual copulation with Jesus as well, since that's wise to assume. Hey, it's possible, afterall, Osiris impregnated the soul of
his bride.
But that's neither here nor there. The main thing to be addressed here is your monotonous special pleading.
There is no argument you have tried to make here against the virgin motherhood of Isis that cannot also be levied at the virgin motherhood of Mary.
You bring up how hwn.t can be translated as maiden, which, while that is a useless argument since that means the same as virgin, especially in this case, parthenos has also been translated as maiden.
You bring up that Isis was married. So was Mary.
You retort with Mary's explicit statement that she "knew not a man". Isis said she was the Great Virgin, while attending to Seti with her own fully grown son Horus. Isis said no man has removed my robe/lifted my veil, and IS the MOTHER of ALL the
living. So is Horus
living when she says this? Of course he is, she made reference to him right there. As I already referenced previously, syncretism, syncretism, syncretism, and many ancient sources tell us of how Horus was conflated with Apollo/Helios, much like how Isis was conflated with Athena/Minerva. The Songs of Isis & Nethphtys make it clear in no ambiguous terms that Isis was a virgin every bit as much as her name was Isis.
Some of the less logical out there might attempt to argue that Isis simply says no MAN has lifted her robe(or veil), and Osiris was a GOD.
Well, Mary simply said she had never known a MAN. This therefore does not leave her exempt from children, women, gods, goddesses, angels, demons, or beastiality.
And since Jehovah is not a man, and she is carrying his kid, we have no hard evidence that exempts Mary from having copulated with Jehovah to conceive Jesus, afterall, she is never stated to be a virgin at the time of the conception, or at any time really, since parthenos fails us at being unambiguous in that regard. She is never referred to as a virgin during or after the conception, and she is only ever stated to not have "known" Joseph until after Jesus was born. Doesn't say anything about not "knowing" Jehovah, or anyone else.
So the conclusion that Mary gave a virgin birth is reached only by succinct logical deduction(and justifiably so), there is no unambiguous explicit evidence in the text.
That might be an interesting experiment for someone with some money to spare to engage in, maybe Tat can front the cash, eh, lol- $1,000 dollars to anyone who can conclusively, unambiguously prove from a biblical source that Mary was a virgin when Jesus was born.
Anyone attempting to take up that challenge will find themselves hard pressed to produce anything even remotely up to the same level as the evidence that has been produced
for the virginity of Isis, much of which has been seen throughout this post.
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I agree that this is true, but to say that Jesus is part of this is to make the *assumption* that Jesus is mythological. I have yet to see any significant evidence that Jesus was mythological.
No, it is not. But to say that Jesus is immune from this is to just make a special exception without justification. Being historical or not has never stopped a figure of noteriety from falling victim to tall tales and even deification. Like the birth of Alexander the Great, that smacks of elements of one of the births of Dionysus. Hardly makes Alexander mythological if one sees the parallel there to Dionysus.
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The main problem is that whether given "parallels" equal "borrowing" or "coincidence" is largely subjective. We don't know for sure, and, no matter which side of the argument we're on, we're bringing our assumptions to the table.
We're bringing facts from history and succinct logical deduction to the table. As I already said(sort of), borrowing is much easier and more likely to occur than mutually exclusive coincidences dependant upon random chance.
But whether borrowed or coincidence, the point of the existence of parallels is that there is nothing exceptional about christianity, and no reason that it should be given any greater validity or consideration than any of the other myths that have the same elements. There's no feature about Jesus that makes him appear any more compelling than any of the other deities out there.
Now as for the bit where you pimp your win a grand challenge, that was never an issue with me, as I recall that was more of Tat's or Free's thing, so there's nothing to be said on that really.
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Like what, though? In the story in which Isis is called "hwn.t", she has a child. Is there any indication, within that particular story, that she was a virgin when she gave birth to him? If not, then I think one would logically assume that the author wasn't trying to tell us that the baby was born through a virgin birth. "Hwn.t" by itself isn't strong enough evidence to suggest that the baby's mama is a virgin.
Yes, that indication that she was a virgin when she gave birth is the fact that he is already born when she calls herself a virgin, as already thoroughly elaborated upon above.