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PostPosted: Tue Jan 10, 2012 1:12 pm 
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ApostateAbe wrote:
we are trying to discern what was going through the minds of the ancient Christian authors of the gospels. The best explanation, I believe, should relate strongly to what the authors themselves wrote in their own texts. The author of the gospel of Luke wrote: "He went into all the region around the Jordan, proclaiming a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins..." (Luke 3:3) This is the only purpose of baptism that we know Christians accepted. If this was only a secondary purpose, then the primary purpose was somehow left unmentioned.
Baptism was a widespread ancient practice long pre-dating Christianity. Baptism relates to the concept of anointing, what the Egyptians long called "KRST'ing, and therefore to the title of Jesus Christ as anointed saviour, and the consecration or coronation of the king as possessing the mandate of heaven. This mandate is revealed in the holy dove who blesses Christ just as the union of Isis and Osiris is blessed with the ba, shown below. Acharya has written on ancient baptism at some length. My description draws on her explanation which she and others may wish to clarify.

So we have the paradigm of the baptism of Christ as the ideal model for the baptism of believers. The problem faced by the Gospel writers was that the power of Rome had rendered legitimate kingship politically impossible, hence the kingdom of Christ was not of this world. Further, the power of Rome meant that traditional practices to achieve union of heaven and earth were impossible, plunging the world into sin. Hence the ideal purpose of baptism as celebration of divine kingly cosmic union was not really possible, and was replaced by the shadow purpose of recovering the lost natural vision.

The divine purpose of the baptism of Christ as delivering the mandate of heaven is explained at Luke 3:21-2: "When all the people were being baptized, Jesus was baptized too. And as he was praying, heaven was opened 22 and the Holy Spirit descended on him in bodily form like a dove. And a voice came from heaven: “You are my Son, whom I love; with you I am well pleased.”
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PostPosted: Tue Jan 10, 2012 1:14 pm 
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Tat Tvam Asi wrote:
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Luke 1:24 And after those days his wife Elisabeth conceived, and hid herself five months

Luke 1:26 And in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God unto a city of Galilee, named Nazareth


Abe, this is very simple and very clear. She was hidden away for five months. That's like saying Jan, Feb, March, April, May. At the end of May 5 months are complete. Then, during the sixth month, which on this scale is June, the summer solstice takes place BEFORE the completion of the sixth month. This means that according to the annual solar cycle before the sixth month is complete, the solstice occurs before the end of the sixth month.

It's actually worded precisely the same way that the summer solstice falls in June, which is technically 5 months and a partial month complete falling just short of a full six months as of the 24th end of the summer solstice. Did you consider that before posting?

January(1st)-February(2nd)-March(3rd)-April(4th)-May(5th)-June: five and a partial(6th).

That's precisely what we should expect from an astrotheological writer trying to pinpoint a reference to the summer solstice, which, was understood as such by early Christians and that's why JtB's birthday is place there. It's placed there because that's where Luke very consciously placed it.
Abe wrote:
"After those days his wife Elizabeth conceived, and for six months she remained in seclusion... At the end of the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent by God..."

As you can see, that would NOT be what we'd expect from the writer if the summer solstice were his intent.
Abe wrote:
But this is the actual phrasing of Luke:

"After those days his wife Elizabeth conceived, and for five months she remained in seclusion... In the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent by God..."

You proved our point!!!

OK, so you are saying that this passage in Luke is an astrotheological allegory to the time period of 5-and-a-part months?


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PostPosted: Tue Jan 10, 2012 1:36 pm 
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The summer solstice happens during the 6th month of the year and before the completion of the sixth month (June 24th is before the completion of the sixth month of the year), precisely the way that you've decoded the passage in Luke below. In order to refer to the summer solstice in allegory we would expect the writer to word it that way because that's when the summer solstice of Johns feast day actually takes place, five complete months plus 24 days before the completion of the sixth month of the year.

You have essentially proven our point that this is an allegory about the summer through winter solstices. Six months after the summer solstice the winter solstice occurs. So to have JtB leaping with joy simply makes a play on the summer solstice sun excited about that the winter solstice that will be coming to save the world from "darkness" ahead six months from him. You've locked yourself down now by posting the diagram Abe. Simply plug the months of the year into position on your own chart and leave your pencil marks right where they are and it should become clear that you just outlined the "summer solstice", St. Johns Day according to tradition.

Jan(1)---Feb(2)---Mar(3)---Apr(4)---May(5)---June(6).


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_________________
The Jesus Mythicist Creed:
The "Jesus Christ" of the New Testament is a fictional composite of characters, real and mythical. A composite of multiple "people" is no one.

The celestial Origins of Religious Belief
ZG Part 1
Jesus: Hebrew Human or Mythical Messiah?
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PostPosted: Tue Jan 10, 2012 1:46 pm 
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Robert Tulip wrote:
ApostateAbe wrote:
we are trying to discern what was going through the minds of the ancient Christian authors of the gospels. The best explanation, I believe, should relate strongly to what the authors themselves wrote in their own texts. The author of the gospel of Luke wrote: "He went into all the region around the Jordan, proclaiming a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins..." (Luke 3:3) This is the only purpose of baptism that we know Christians accepted. If this was only a secondary purpose, then the primary purpose was somehow left unmentioned.
Baptism was a widespread ancient practice long pre-dating Christianity. Baptism relates to the concept of anointing, what the Egyptians long called "KRST'ing, and therefore to the title of Jesus Christ as anointed saviour, and the consecration or coronation of the king as possessing the mandate of heaven. This mandate is revealed in the holy dove who blesses Christ just as the union of Isis and Osiris is blessed with the ba, shown below. Acharya has written on ancient baptism at some length. My description draws on her explanation which she and others may wish to clarify.

So we have the paradigm of the baptism of Christ as the ideal model for the baptism of believers. The problem faced by the Gospel writers was that the power of Rome had rendered legitimate kingship politically impossible, hence the kingdom of Christ was not of this world. Further, the power of Rome meant that traditional practices to achieve union of heaven and earth were impossible, plunging the world into sin. Hence the ideal purpose of baptism as celebration of divine kingly cosmic union was not really possible, and was replaced by the shadow purpose of recovering the lost natural vision.

The divine purpose of the baptism of Christ as delivering the mandate of heaven is explained at Luke 3:21-2: "When all the people were being baptized, Jesus was baptized too. And as he was praying, heaven was opened 22 and the Holy Spirit descended on him in bodily form like a dove. And a voice came from heaven: “You are my Son, whom I love; with you I am well pleased.”
Image

The interesting thing about that baptism account in Luke is that John the Baptist was there to do the baptism. He was thrown in prison a few verses before. Jesus was baptized, but Luke does not specify who was the baptizer.

The baptism account of Luke sourced from the baptism account of Mark, and in contrast Mark does specify that John the Baptist was the one who baptized Jesus. Luke found this embarrassing, so he had John the Baptist imprisoned before he had the chance to baptize Jesus.

I think this would shed light on the reason why Mark chose the baptism as the occasion for the mandate from heaven. Mark could have instead chose the Transfiguration or the end of the three temptations, but it was the baptism. When God announced, "You are my Son, the Beloved; with you I am well pleased," it was meant for Jesus. The spirit descended on Jesus, not John the Baptist, and the account was seemingly designed to leave no ambiguity in the minds of the reader about who was the better man.

Baptism is the immersion of someone in a body of water. Anointing is the act of pouring oil on someone's head. They are not the same act, though analogous. I think solid evidence would be needed to draw a connection between the two rituals. For example, you say that this anointing is "what the Egyptians long called "KRST'ing". This would serve as at least a loose connection, but I need to be sure that this is not just another modern myth told among modern authors. Do you happen to know if this is found in the ancient evidence?


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PostPosted: Tue Jan 10, 2012 1:53 pm 
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Tat Tvam Asi wrote:
The summer solstice happens during the 6th month of the year before the completion of the sixth month (the 24th is before the completion of the sixth month of the year), precisely the way that you've decoded the passage in Luke. In order to refer to the summer solstice in allegory we would expect the writer to word it that way because that's when the summer solstice actuall takes place, five months plus but just before the completion of the sixth month of the year.

You have essentially proven our point that this is an allegory about the summer and winter solstices. Six months later the winter solstice occurs. So to have JtB leaping with joy simply makes a play on the summer solstice sun excited about that the winter solstice will be coming ahead. You've locked yourself down now by posting the diagram Abe. Simply plug the months of the year into position and leave your marks right where they are and it should become clear to you what just happened.

OK, so you think there is an astrotheological connection in both the time periods of six months and five-and-a-part months. Luke 1:24 says that Elizabeth was in seclusion for five months. Do you think maybe there is some astrotheological connection to five months?


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PostPosted: Tue Jan 10, 2012 2:06 pm 
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Abe wrote:
OK, so you think there is an astrotheological connection in both the time periods of six months and five-and-a-part months. Luke 1:24 says that Elizabeth was in seclusion for five months. Do you think maybe there is some astrotheological connection to five months?

I already explained that quite directly. The way you've laid it out is that the writer was intent on passing off five months in order to establish a time period just short of a complete six months. You were just arguing with FTL in order to establish that much. You posted a diagram placing the reference between the completion of the 5th month and the completion of the 6th month.

5th month complete>--5 months plus------(summer solstice)-----6 months complete>

If you add the months of the year into the diagram you posted to FTL you'll find that while outlining the sequence for JtB you actually oulined when the summer solstice occurs during the year. So yes, of course they used the reference of 5 months falling short of a full six months to zero in on a reference to the summer solstice, which, means that there was an astrotheological reason for laying out the seclusion of five months in the story line. It plays into the over all theme.

And then moving forward through the course of the year from the summer solstice (John's Day) to the winter solstice (Nativity of Jesus) six months have passed by. So both sides of the debate are correct about the timelines, it's just that you failed to realize that you were setting yourself up with no choice but to acknowledge that from the first of the year (January) to the summer solstice (June) 5 and a partial months take place every year. You pulled the summer solstice reference out of the texts without even realizing what you were doing in the process....


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_________________
The Jesus Mythicist Creed:
The "Jesus Christ" of the New Testament is a fictional composite of characters, real and mythical. A composite of multiple "people" is no one.

The celestial Origins of Religious Belief
ZG Part 1
Jesus: Hebrew Human or Mythical Messiah?
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PostPosted: Tue Jan 10, 2012 2:40 pm 
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Tat Tvam Asi wrote:
Abe wrote:
OK, so you think there is an astrotheological connection in both the time periods of six months and five-and-a-part months. Luke 1:24 says that Elizabeth was in seclusion for five months. Do you think maybe there is some astrotheological connection to five months?

I already explained that quite directly. The way you've laid it out is that the writer was intent on passing off five months in order to establish a time period just short of a complete six months. You were just arguing with FTL in order to establish that much. You posted a diagram placing the reference between the completion of the 5th month and the completion of the 6th month.

5th month complete>--5 months plus------(summer solstice)-----6 months complete>

If you add the months of the year into the diagram you posted to FTL you'll find that while outlining the sequence for JtB you actually oulined when the summer solstice occurs during the year. So yes, of course they used the reference of 5 months falling short of a full six months to zero in on a reference to the summer solstice, which, means that there was an astrotheological reason for laying out the seclusion of five months in the story line. It plays into the over all theme.

And then moving forward through the course of the year from the summer solstice (John's Day) to the winter solstice (Nativity of Jesus) six months have passed by. So both sides of the debate are correct about the timelines, it's just that you failed to realize that you were setting yourself up with no choice but to acknowledge that from the first of the year (January) to the summer solstice (June) 5 and a partial months take place every year. You pulled the summer solstice reference out of the texts without even realizing what you were doing in the process....

OK, so here was the beginning of the debate.

You said, "Very nice and fair of you to say Abe. So how does Luke's assertion of Jesus born six months after John apply to the theory you're trying to lay out? In our case we're seeing that it points to an astrotheological allegory about the summer and winter solstices which are six months apart of course."

I challenged this, but you said:

"The allegory is laid out pretty clear Abe. Six months is a very direct reference to the time between solstices."

I objected:

"If, by chance, there was astrotheological significance to the period of time of five months instead of six months, then you would be equally capable of drawing a metaphorical connection, because that period of time is given in the same narrative of Luke..."

Freethinkuluva objected:

"That 5 months had nothing to do with Mary or her conception of Jesus. The bible does not give a specific date of birth for John or Jesus however, Luke is categorically, unmistakeably clear that John the Baptist and Jesus are definitely born 6 months apart."

And then he doubled down:

"That's a good point in todays terms, Abe, however, there's absolutely no reason to believe they meant anything other than 6 months due to the fact that the nativity celebration of John the Baptist, known as St. John's Day, is the oldest celebration for Christianity and has always been held three days after the summer solstice."

And now you say that the time period of five-and-a-part months has astrotheological significance, as if you said it all along, because it is the length of time between the beginning of the year and the summer solstice.

So, I think the point I made early on has special poignancy now. To repeat:

"If, by chance, there was astrotheological significance to the period of time of five months instead of six months, then you would be equally capable of drawing a metaphorical connection, because that period of time is given in the same narrative of Luke..."

To explain further, the main problem has to do with the diverse selection of data to choose from. You have a set of values in the Christian narratives of John the Baptist, and of course you have set of many values in astrotheology. You find values that match, and you take the matching values as evidence. That is the sort of thing done in numerology, conspiracy theories, astrology, tarot card readings, and anywhere else you need to draw connections where no connections existed before. It is not just done with numbers, but also with roughly-matching pairs of words, names, musical strings, art, persons, places, events, and so on. It is the same principle as finding Jesus in a cheese sandwich

Image

or a man's face on Mars.

Image


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PostPosted: Tue Jan 10, 2012 3:10 pm 
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No Abe, it isn't that simple. You just completely chose to ignore the outcome of your own argument. There is still six months between solstices. Nothing has changed. You added the dimension of a reference to 5 months and then provided a theory about John the Baptist leaping in his mothers womb which hinged on claiming that this happened at 5 plus months, close to 6 months but six months completely. To try and prove your point you posted a detailed diagram with arrows pointing to a point before the completion of the sixth month of pregnancy in favor of your historical assertions. As if that negated any astrotheological intent by the writer.

I simply pointed out to you that what you just did was outline the annual summer solstice just as it falls, shy of the completion of the sixth month of the year. The feast day of John the Baptist is addressed to that specific date which falls just shy of the completion of the sixth month of the year. Why? Because someone obviously knew and understood what Luke was getting at by establishing a reference to the summer solstice time of year. Between the summer solstice to the winter solstice, is the six month period. We find both references in Luke. You wanted to know why the 5 months are mentioned and the and the answer rose to the surface while debating it.

Your argument against astrotheology turned up an astrotheological reference which is consistent with Luke, some of the oldest Church tradition, and all of the other astrotheology in the NT. This isn't remotely close to seeing the face of Jesus on a piece of toast. What I did was take a look at your diagram, glanced down at the calendar on my desk, and realized that the summer solstice falls just about the way you laid out the diagram by taking it very technically and literally. This is a new dimension to the argument that arose from the back and forth of the argument itself. It proves the assertion that Luke was more likely than not, directing his tale with the summer solstice in mind, which is consistant with long held tradition about Luke.

_________________
The Jesus Mythicist Creed:
The "Jesus Christ" of the New Testament is a fictional composite of characters, real and mythical. A composite of multiple "people" is no one.

The celestial Origins of Religious Belief
ZG Part 1
Jesus: Hebrew Human or Mythical Messiah?


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PostPosted: Tue Jan 10, 2012 3:50 pm 
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Tat Tvam Asi wrote:
No Abe, it isn't that simple. You just completely chose to ignore the outcome of your own argument. There is still six months between solstices. Nothing has changed. You added the dimension of a reference to 5 months and then provided a theory about John the Baptist leaping in his mothers womb which hinged on claiming that this happened at 5 plus months, close to 6 months but six months completely. To try and prove your point you posted a detailed diagram with arrows pointing to a point before the completion of the sixth month of pregnancy in favor of your historical assertions. As if that negated any astrotheological intent by the writer.

I simply pointed out to you that what you just did was outline the annual summer solstice just as it falls, shy of the completion of the sixth month of the year. The feast day of John the Baptist is addressed to that specific date which falls just shy of the completion of the sixth month of the year. Why? Because someone obviously knew and understood what Luke was getting at by establishing a reference to the summer solstice time of year. Between the summer solstice to the winter solstice, is the six month period. We find both references in Luke. You wanted to know why the 5 months are mentioned and the and the answer rose to the surface while debating it.

Your argument against astrotheology turned up an astrotheological reference which is consistent with Luke, some of the oldest Church tradition, and all of the other astrotheology in the NT. This isn't remotely close to seeing the face of Jesus on a piece of toast. What I did was take a look at your diagram, glanced down at the calendar on my desk, and realized that the summer solstice falls just about the way you laid out the diagram by taking it very technically and literally. This is a new dimension to the argument that arose from the back and forth of the argument itself. It proves the assertion that Luke was more likely than not, directing his tale with the summer solstice in mind, which is consistant with long held tradition about Luke.

I used to have to have an argument with a family member about whether the "seventy sevens" of the book of Daniel predicted Jesus. The apologetic arguments involve a timeline, with the beginning of the period being ambiguous and arbitrarily chosen, the end point being ambiguous and arbitrarily chosen, the time interval of "seven" being ambiguous and arbitrarily chosen, and every event on the timeline is ambiguous and arbitrarily decided. This debate seems hardly different. You started out with a six-month period, and you stood behind it because six months is the length of time between the winter solstice and the summer solstice. I proved that the passage itself does not speak of a six-month period, but of a five-and-a-part month period. The ball was kicked outside the goalpost. That is OK, because you shifted the goalpost. You found significance in the five-and-a-part month time period, because that is the length of time between the beginning of the year and the summer solstice. That's something you can do, because a number of different time periods would be astrotheologically significant somehow.

The reasons why people see Jesuses in cheese sandwiches are as follows:

  1. There are very many cheese sandwiches, toasts, pancakes, pies and grilled meats in the world, each with their own somewhat randomly colored surfaces.
  2. There are very many ways we can visualize the face of Jesus.
  3. People are naturally inclined to see human faces in general and the face of Jesus in particular.

The reasons why you seem to see astrological significance in Bible passages are as follows:

  1. The Bible is long, mystical and difficult to interpret.
  2. Astrotheology is a large and complex set of ideas.
  3. You are inclined to find astrotheological connections in the Bible.

That isn't to say that there are most certainly no astrotheological allusions in the Bible. But, I do think that the evidence needs to be better than the Jesus in the cheese sandwich--this kinda sorta looks like that.


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PostPosted: Tue Jan 10, 2012 3:57 pm 
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Quote:
You find values that match, and you take the matching values as evidence.


Because it is. It is not always the best evidence, but it is a justified basis for suspicion, and I'll explain more below. Sure, correlation does not always equal causation, but if there IS causation, it's likely that correlation can be found. You & other folks I've seen on the web have a tendency to pigeon-hole only the examples of when the correlation-causation relationship is abused, such as in the case of astrologers or conspiracy theorists, yet I never see the positive examples brought up in which the correlation-causation suspicion can actually be useful and often times properly utilized, such as in detective work.

Quote:
It is the same principle as finding Jesus in a cheese sandwich

Image

or a man's face on Mars.

Image


So if you had absolutely no knowledge about the history of the object in the following photo, would you assume the object in the photo was just a natural coincidence, or would its correlation to other objects you've seen give you the impression that there was deliberate man-made causation involved rather than natural, whimsical causation?

Image

So my point is, while it's not always the best evidence, correlation IS justifiable evidence for suspicion and can often lead to the right conclusions.

It has many times for myself.

When I first saw The Lion, The Witch, and The Wardrobe as a kid, I immediately saw correlation between Aslan & Jesus, especially that both were called lions, both sacrificed themselves for a sinner who betrayed them, and both resurrected from the dead. Plus the phrases "sons of Adam" & "daughters of Eve" furthered by hunch.
After seeing the cartoon, I investigated my suspicions(i.e., asked my mom), and sure enough, my suspicions were justified, as it turns out that C.S. Lewis was a Christian and has admitted multiple times that his religion influenced his works, and in one place I know of he even explicitly admitted Aslan was an allegory for Jesus.

I had pretty much the same experience when I first saw The Matrix, and sure enough, my suspicions were justified, as I afterwards learned of a chat interview in which the Wachowski brothers admitted that they incorporated themes from Christianity & other religions into the movie.

So, while I can understand your skepticism, I hope now you at least understand our suspicions of causation, and that whether they turn out right or wrong, at least they are justified.


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PostPosted: Tue Jan 10, 2012 4:15 pm 
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I don't disagree in the least. I think that legitimate connections can be inferred based on matching data sets, and there are right ways to do it. The right way to do it is to have two complete data sets on the table, and it must be shown that a high percentage of the data from one set matches with specific detail a high percentage of the data from the other set, well beyond what would be expected from mere arbitrary chance.


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PostPosted: Tue Jan 10, 2012 5:19 pm 
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Abe wrote:
"After those days his wife Elizabeth conceived, and for five months she remained in seclusion" (Luke 1:24).

This brings up an additional problem with your hypothesis. The time period between the two solstices is exactly six months, as you said. But, if you read the text carefully, Luke is not talking about an exact six-month period of time. Per Luke 1:26: "In the sixth month..."--it is at a point in time after the completion of five months (Luke 1:24) and before the completion of six months....

There's no goal post moving Abe, and I think the above is where this went off track for all of us for a while. You were assuming that we were talking about the six months from the winter solstice to the summer solstice of John's Day, when that isn't even what we are saying.
Abe wrote:
You started out with a six-month period, and you stood behind it because six months is the length of time between the winter solstice and the summer solstice. I proved that the passage itself does not speak of a six-month period, but of a five-and-a-part month period. The ball was kicked outside the goalpost. That is OK, because you shifted the goalpost.

But that was a complete strawman Abe, because if you look at what I said I wasn't talking about the [winter solstice and counting six months to John's day from there, it was the exact opposite - John's day on the 24th of the six month, before the completion of six months, to Jesus Nativity six months after that.[/b] You even quoted me saying the very same thing I'm saying now which is what I've been saying all along:
Abe wrote:
You said, "Very nice and fair of you to say Abe. So how does Luke's assertion of Jesus born six months after John apply to the theory you're trying to lay out? In our case we're seeing that it points to an astrotheological allegory about the summer and winter solstices which are six months apart of course."

I challenged this, but you said:

"The allegory is laid out pretty clear Abe. Six months is a very direct reference to the time between solstices."

You then switched the solstices around backwards, opposite of the way we were discussing, and tried to say that this is only five and partial months so it can't be about the winter solstice to the summer solstice. That is where you applied the straw man.

It actually seems to be set up linear from the beginning of the year to the summer solstice of John's Day to the winter solstice Jesus' Nativity six months later, because the myth has specifically to do with John coming before Jesus = from the first of the year to the summer solstice and then to the winter solstice. The summer solstice takes place during the 6th month of the year. This is our position and it's true. And six months after the 6th month of the year falls the winter solstice. Still the position we've always had and still true. This sets up the feast day of John and the Nativity of Christ in Christian tradition for not historical, but rather astrotheological reasons, and the CE says as much.
Quote:
"The Nativity of St John the Baptist is one of the oldest festivals of the Christian church...

"The Nativity of St John the Baptist on June 24 comes three months after the celebration on March 25 of the Annunciation, when the Archangel Gabriel told Our Lady that her cousin Elizabeth was in her sixth month of pregnancy, and six months before the Christmas celebration of the birth of Jesus."
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nativity_o ... he_Baptist

"The Gospel suggests that the Precursor was born about six months before Christ; but the year of Christ's nativity has not so far been ascertained. Nor is there anything certain about the season of Christ's birth, for it is well known that the assignment of the feast of Christmas to the twenty-fifth of December is not grounded on historical evidence, but is possibly suggested by merely astronomical considerations, also, perhaps, inferred from astronomico-theological reasonings."

"...The commemoration of his Nativity is one of the oldest feasts, if not the oldest feast, introduced into both the Greek and Latin liturgies to honour a saint. But why is the feast proper, as it were, of St. John on the day of his nativity, whereas with other saints it is the day of their death? Because it was meant that the birth of him who, unlike the rest, was "filled with the Holy Ghost even from his mother's womb", should be signalized as a day of triumph. The celebration of the Decollation of John the Baptist, on 29 August, enjoys almost the same antiquity. We find also in the oldest martyrologies mention of a feast of the Conception of the Precursor on 24 September."

- Catholic Encyclopedia: St. John the Baptist

You were confused by the fact that it mentions five months after Elizabeth conceived, and you're saying no, wait a minute, it isn't exactly 6 months from the previous winter solstice (before Jesus' birth) to the summer solstice. But if we simply look at the writer as referring to the sixth month of the year, which June and the summer solstice fall along with the Church's feast day for John, we find that it's the sixth month of the year for sure. It's six months from the previous winter solstice, but 5 and a partial month from the beginning of the annual year. And the writer seems to be showing signs of starting from the beginning of the year and going to the summer solstice and then the winter solstice for a reference to the annual calendar year with both of it's solstices marked out in the text. If it isn't really for historical reasons but rather astromythological and astrotheological reasons, then it shouldn't be expected to make perfect sense as real history. The number plays are clues...

When I compared the diagram below of you trying to prove that the time period falls just short of a full six months from the conception of Elizabeth and I looked down at the calendar on my desk I realized that you'd just teased the first part of the annual seasonal allegory out of the text without even realizing what you were doing in the process. You were just trying to take the text as literally as possible and make sense of it somehow from that perspective.

But a strict literal reading renders an exact detailed breakdown behind the reasoning of church authorities for the position of the feast day of John before the end of the sixth month of the year and also the nativity of Jesus six months after the end of the summer solstice. Good job Abe. Just look below, you actually teased out something fairly significant about the myth without even realizing what you were doing.
8)


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Jesus: Hebrew Human or Mythical Messiah?
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PostPosted: Sat Jan 21, 2012 3:32 am 
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ApostateAbe wrote:
Baptism is the immersion of someone in a body of water. Anointing is the act of pouring oil on someone's head. They are not the same act, though analogous. I think solid evidence would be needed to draw a connection between the two rituals. For example, you say that this anointing is "what the Egyptians long called "KRST'ing". This would serve as at least a loose connection, but I need to be sure that this is not just another modern myth told among modern authors. Do you happen to know if this is found in the ancient evidence?


The Wikipedia page on Anointing is informative.
Wikipedia Anointing wrote:
To anoint is to pour or smear with perfumed oil, milk, water, melted butter or other substances, a process employed ritually by many religions. People and things are anointed to symbolize the introduction of a sacramental or divine influence, a holy emanation, spirit, power or God. It can also be seen as a spiritual mode of ridding persons and things of dangerous influences...Many early apocryphal and Gnostic texts indicate that anointing was part of the baptismal process, and in fact that the baptism with water (John's baptism) is incomplete. The Gospel of Philip states; "The Chrism is superior to baptism, for it is from the word "Chrism" that we have been called "Christians", certainly not because of the word "baptism." And it from the "Chrism" that the "Christ" has his name. For the Father anointed the Son, and the Son anointed the apostles, and the apostles anointed us. He who has been anointed possesses everything. He possesses the Resurrection, the Light, the Cross, the Holy Spirit. The Father gave him this in the bridal chamber, he merely accepted the gift. The Father was in the Son and the Son in the Father. This is the Kingdom of Heaven." In the Acts of Thomas the anointing is in fact the beginning of the baptismal process and essential to becoming a "Christian." It claims that God knows his own children by his seal, and that we shall receive the seal by the oil. Many such baptisms/Chrismations are described in detail throughout the text.


Acharya made the following comments on KRST, the Egyptian term for anoint which provided the etymological origin of the term Christ.
D.M. Murdock wrote:
You guys are amusing! It's always nice to have an intelligent conversation about these fascinating topics, so once again I appreciate this opportunity very much.

I wanted to share with you what was one of the hardest nuts to crack - and one of the most fascinating, which is why I spent hours upon hours working on it. (Representing the culmination, of course, of years and decades of research. :roll: )

Osiris the Christ?

The particular nugget in my book Christ in Egypt that I nearly killed myself mining was the Christ-KRST comparison, as found in the "Truth, Light and Good Shepherd" chapter. Of course, this similarity between the titles "Christ" and "KRST" or "Karast," etc., represents one of the controversial contentions made by various mythicists of prior ages. Admittedly, it was not easy to find, but neither was the original key that allowed for the translation of the Egyptian hieroglyphs in the first place: To wit, the Rosetta Stone, excavated out of the ground in Egypt by Napoleon's troops. One of my sources, in fact, is the main decoder of the hieroglyphs and translator of the Rosetta Stone, the French linguist Champollion.

On pp. 313-9, I go into a detailed discussion of the Egyptian word transliterated as "krst," "karast," "krst, "qeres-t," "qrst," etc., providing the Egyptian hieroglyphs. As I say there:

Quote:
Not only is Osiris the “Lord of Truth,” the “good shepherd” and “sin-bearer,” but, as the “lord of the tomb,” he was essentially also called “Christ,” since one Egyptian term for “tomb,” “funeral,” “dead body” or “mummy” is qrst, likewise transliterated as krst, karast, qeres-t, qrs.t and qrst.

I then relate the contentions about this issue made by lay Egyptologist Gerald Massey. As I'm sure you or I have stated elsewhere in this forum thread, in CIE I discuss the work of Gerald Massey, which has received so much interest in the past few years. In my article, I show that his work was indeed peer-reviewed by some of the most renowned Egyptologists, Assyriologists and archaeologists of his day. In any event, there are only a certain few contentions about the Horus-Jesus connection to which I must turn to Massey for exegesis, and these too can be upheld in significant part. (For a further discussion, see my article "Who is Gerald Massey?," an excerpt from CIE.)

Says Massey:

Quote:
We now proceed to show that Christ the anointed is none other than the Osiris-karast, and that the karast mummy risen to its feet as Osiris-sahu was the prototypal Christ. Unhappily these demonstrations cannot be made without a wearisome mass of detail.... Dr. Budge, in his book on the mummy, tells his readers that the Egyptian word for mummy is ges, which signifies to wrap up in bandages…. [The word] ges or kes, to embalm the corpse or make the mummy, is a reduced or abraded form of an earlier word, karas (whence krst for the mummy). The original word written in hieroglyphics is ---- krst, whence kas, to embalm, to bandage, to knot, to make the mummy or karast (Birch, Dictionary of the Hieroglyphics, pp. 415-416; Champollion, Gram. Egyptienne, 86). The word krs denotes the embalmment of the mummy, and the krst, as the mummy, was made in the process of preparation by purifying, anointing, and embalming. To karas the dead body was to embalm it, to bandage it, to make the mummy. The mummy was the Osirian Corpus Christi, prepared for burial as the laid-out dead, the karast by name. When raised to its feet, it was the risen mummy, or sahu. The place of embalmment was likewise the krs. Thus the process of making the mummy was to karas, the place in which it was laid is the karas, and the product was the krst, whose image is the upright mummy=the risen Christ. Hence, the name of the Christ, Christos in Greek, Chrestus in Latin, for the anointed, was derived…from the Egyptian word krst….

Say what you will or believe what you may, there is no other origin for Christ the anointed than for Horus the karast or anointed son of god the father. There is no other origin for a Messiah as the anointed than for the Masu or anointed....

Massey's difficulty here when he declares, "Unhappily these demonstrations cannot be made without a wearisome mass of detail," is that of any serious scientific researcher, who must prove a thesis that has hitherto remained unproved. If all facts were readily available in neat little packages, without need for further investigation, examination and research, then we would already know them, and scientists, scholars and researchers would be out of a job. In any case, the problem here and elsewhere is one of things not necessarily represented concretely in the written record, clearly spelled out and readily available. Hence, exegesis is necessary. Indeed, the mere existence of the word "exegesis" reflects the problem of the scientist, scholar and researcher to come up with concrete theories.

Such tediousness is why I spent some eight pages on this subject! This information was not neatly laid out in an easily accessible text from an approved source. It was scattered here and there in texts that were difficult to track down, obtain and read from authorities in other lands and eras, in a variety of languages. Hence, this book has some 2,400 citations - talk about a "wearisome mass of detail!" Moreover, I had to learn some Egyptian on the spot in order to find the various relevant words, which I then cited meticulously. (Like everyone else, I am not omniscient and do not know every language on Earth, but I am fortunate to be able to learn what I need when I encounter a new one - and there are many new ones to encounter, with thousands worldwide.)

Citing authorities such as Champollion, Birch, Budge and others, I discuss how the Egyptian word krst and its linguistic relatives refer to the burial, embalmment and mummy, which is why this term krst is associated with Osiris, the god of the underworld.

Image
Hieroglyph, signifying KRST or Mummy
(Champollion, Grammaire Egyptienne, 80)


Image
(Birch, Dictionary of Hieroglyphics, 316)

As we discover, the mummy - the deceased as "the Osiris" - is anointed for burial, a sacred ritual essentially the same as baptism, both of which are for purification. The anointing of the mummy constitutes its purification in order to pass into the desired afterlife. The Osiris is anointed = Osiris is KRST. In my book I go into detail about how Osiris and Horus are often interchangeable, as one's death gives rise to the other's birth, with the cycle endlessly repeated. I also explain more about the purification of the dead, the baptism provided by the beheaded Anubis the purifier.

As there are in other chapters and subsections, there's a very interesting back story to this fascinating development, which is the history of the world's first Egyptian hieroglyphic dictionary, that of Dr. Samuel Birch - one of Massey's friends and mentors - who in the 1840s endeavored to organize and publish every Egyptian inscription in the British Museum. With great difficulty, including that there existed no hieroglyph font for the printers of the time, his book was published - in the back of the fifth volume of Bunsen's Egyptian chronology. Because Bunsen had died, interest in his work waned, and the volume went of print quickly. Scholars like Budge were compelled to visit the British Library in order to access what was clearly a highly valuable and important collection but which had been left by the wayside. We can see from this story how facts and theories can require a "wearisome mass of detail."

It was a great deal of work, but what I eventually dug up turned out to be fascinating!


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PostPosted: Sat Jan 21, 2012 6:41 am 
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Robert, do you remember some past discussions where people raised the point that Luke's nativity seems more addressed to spring with the imagery of shepards and sheep, than to the winter solstice when it seems too cold for sheep and shepards to be out and about? It always seemed to me that the usual mythological play between solstice and equinox is the cause for the mythological imagery between Matthew and Luke, because in one sense the sun's birth is after the winter solstice, whereas the birth of organic life is addressed to the post vernal equinox time of year. The sun dies at the winter solstice, but the death and resurrection of the sun are celebrated together 3 months later. They combine the two seasonal points together and pick the celebration time for after light has become greater than darkness and also when organic life has come back again too. It seems like a good time to celebrate the whole death and resurrection thing while the solar cycle and organic life cycle are both running parallel on the up and up together, ascending.

I was reflecting back on that recently with regards to what I've been analysing about Luke's nativity's of John and Jesus and realized that if we did assume that the writer was referring to the annual year starting from the first month (January) and the announcement of Jesus coming "in the sixth month" around the summer solstice (June), then that places John the Baptist's birth at the autumnal equinox three months later (September) followed by Jesus's nativity at the vernal equinox six months after that (March / Aries) - the "lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world" who later becomes the sign of the Fish after the crucifixion and changing of the "ages." And with all of this in mind, Jesus is still the one who "increases" while John is still the one who "decreases" regardless of whether they are each addressed to the summer solstice / autumnal equinox or the winter solstice / vernal equinox between Matthew and Luke's nativity's.

"He must increase while I must decrease."

"He who comes after me is greater than me, because he was before me."


Once again, if the speaker (John) represents either the summer solstice or the autumnal equinox (in either Matthew or Lukes version) than he's addressing either the winter solstice or the vernal equinox (Jesus) because in both cases the winter solstice and vernal equinox (Jesus) are "greater" than the latter (John) in terms of the growth of day light and organic life, and also because they (Jesus) come both BEFORE and AFTER the summer solstice or autumnal equinox (John) depending on which of the two nativity's you choose. So John's gospel seems to follow with what is found in either Matthew or Luke's nativity in terms of the two versions being addressed one to the winter solstice and the other to the vernal equinox....

And of course Luke's nativity seems more addressed to spring than Matthew's as people have pointed out before in discussion, so starting with the first of the year (January) seems to run in line with the observation of Lukes nativity addressed to Jesus' birth in spring and not winter. In Luke the narrative basically seems to lay out the seasonal cycle of the annual year from start to finish in that way, putting it all together.

Church tradition has favored the birth dates of John and Jesus with the solstices for the reasons quoted above, but it seems possible that the writer of Luke could have been considering the equinoxes when laying out his nativity's for John and Jesus and the Church later decided to favor the winter solstice reading of Matthew (Orion, Sirus, Virgo, Canopus?) instead of going with an equinox based nativity of Luke in order to consciously usurp Mithraism or the winter solstice Horus birth and others. And then they choose to celebrate the death and resurrection in spring in order to usurp the equinox celebrations during that time of year. That's actually pretty interesting to consider and it does seem plausible at first glance. Because by the time these gospels were being written the writers were just aiming for popular sounding birth sequences that would appeal to proselytizing the various gentiles anyways, and in that sense the solstices and equinoxes both appeal to such an effort and Matthew could have been more concerned with usurping the solstices while Luke may have been more concerned with usurping the equinoxes. Even if there was an historical Jesus at the bottom of it all, it seems more than clear that the non-contemporary, and non-eyewitness gospel writers were not writing with a literal and historical birth sequence in mind - it's clearly full mythology by this point in time and aimed at trying to promote a savior figure in the manor of a pagan sun God, whether or not the savior figure started out historical.

So how strange would it be to uncover an appeal to both the Solstices and Equinoxes between the two nativity's given in Matthew and Luke :?:

_________________
The Jesus Mythicist Creed:
The "Jesus Christ" of the New Testament is a fictional composite of characters, real and mythical. A composite of multiple "people" is no one.

The celestial Origins of Religious Belief
ZG Part 1
Jesus: Hebrew Human or Mythical Messiah?


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